has been known for quite some time; see the book-in-progress by Aldous and Fill, or the one by Pollard.
The relation
also seems to be folklore knowledge; I have not seen a proof anywhere and give a simple (non-probabilistic) one here (Lemma 2.6). Amir Dembo suggested that I re-derive this in a probability-theoretic way, via coupling. Here it is.
Recall that if
and
are probability measures on
then
,where the infimum is taken over all the distributions on
, having marginals
and
, resp., and the random variables are
and
are distributed
and
. Any such joint measure on
is called a coupling and one achieving the infimum is called a maximal coupling.Applying this to our situation, let us define the random variables
. Let
be a maximal coupling of
and
, and define similarly
for
and
. Notice that
is a (not necessarily maximal) coupling of
and
. Then.


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