Monday, February 12, 2007

More feminist math

This started out as a comment to Alexandre Borovik's post but as I was writing it I decided it merits a post of its own.

I'd craft a strongly worded reaction to this garbage (the author compares sexual abuse to "math abuse"), but I hate to repeat myself.

I can only add that John Kellermeier's suggestion that mathematical education abandon its "right" answers and methods would be laughable if it weren't so frighteningly realistic.

This isn't to say that every problem has a unique answer or way of arriving at it. Some problems even have no known answers! But for pedagogical reasons, we tend to give youngsters well-posed, solvable problems that illustrate some specific correct technique.

Is Kellermeier really so humorless and out of touch as not to realize he's imitating Jack Handey?
Instead of having "answers" on a math test, they should just call them "impressions," and if you got a different "impression," so what, can't we all be brothers?

Except I guess you can't say "brothers" anymore. Is "siblings" sufficiently inclusive and diverse?

Concatenation implies star?

Fix a finite alphabet -- let's take it to be {0,1} for simplicity. A language L is a collection of finite strings over {0,1}, i.e., L is a subset of {0,1}^*.

Let U be a family of languages. We say that U is closed under an operation if applying the operation to members of U always yields members of U. Suppose U is closed under concatenation -- that is, if L_1 and L_2 are in U then so is L_1 L_2 (the set of all strings with prefix in L_1 and suffix in L_2).

A student claimed in a homework problem that if U is closed under concatenation then it is closed under the star operation (L^* is the set of all strings obtained by concatenating n members of L, for n=0,1,2,...).

Is this true? Answers/discussion welcome in comments!

Wednesday, February 7, 2007

Sampling Lipschitz functions

Fix a positive integer n and let F_n be the set of all functions
f:{0,1}^n -> [0,n]
that are 1-Lipschitz with respect to the Hamming metric. As a reminder, for two sequences x and y in {0,1}^n, their Hamming distance d(x,y) simply counts the number of indices in which they differ. The Lipschitz condition just means that
|f(x) - f(y)| <= d(x,y)
for all x and y in {0,1}^n. It's obvious that F_n is a compact, convex polytope in a finite dimensional space (that space being R^(2^n) ). How would you sample a function uniformly at random from F_n?

I have a method that I'm pretty sure is correct, but I'd love to generate some discussion...

Tuesday, February 6, 2007

Proofs & Math Pedagogy

Alexandre Borovik's post reminded me of the good old days when I was a math undergrad and would pay an annual visit to my 6th grade Gifted&Talented math teacher. She let me teach a lesson, which proved popular enough that the following year I got two periods in a row. The class consisted of that rare breed of American 12-year-olds who are genuinely hungry for mathematical knowledge and can appreciate beauty and aesthetics when they see it. These kids, I remind you, have never seen calculus or trigonometry, and don't have a solid grasp of the real number field.

I would start out by writing three expressions on the board:
(a) 1 + 1/2 + 1/4 + 1/8 + ...
(b) 1 + 1/2 + 1/3 + 1/4 + 1/5 + ...
(c) 1 - 1 + 1 - 1 + ...

and ask them what each series sums to. Most had no difficulty getting (a) right, and many could even give a pictorial argument to support their answer. (b) gave them more trouble, and who can blame them? It's far from obvious, at first glance, how the harmonic series behaves; even using a computer and making plots, one would become frustrated by the slow divergence. I let the cat out of the bag by telling them that it does in fact blow up, but they'll have to wait for college and Baby Rudin to become really convinced. [Incidentally, as all intelligent 12-year-olds, they are fascinated and confused by the concept of infinity. I glossed over it at this point, saying that "infinity" in this case is shorthand for "increasing without bound" or becoming "as large as you want if you add up enough terms". We'll come back to it shortly!] But what to do about (c)? One hardly needs a computer simulation or a formal proof to see that something is not kosher about that expression. If (b) can be called a "number" in some extended sense, there is no sense in which (c) makes sense a number. So, lesson number one: just because we can write it down, in numbers and symbols, does not necessarily mean it's well-defined or makes sense.

I would go on to ask if anyone had heard of irrational numbers and could name an example of one. A few hands would go up -- "pi" would be the standard answer. Whether anyone knew why, or could formally define irrational numbers, is another matter. Well, we didn't prove pi's irrationality, but we did define rationals and irrationals, and more importantly, we'd see a rigorous proof of the existence of irrational numbers! For most of the kids, this was the first time seeing a formal proof, and by the looks on the faces, I could see that a paradigm shift was taking place. What a novel concept -- you don't just accept facts handed down from authority, but become convinced of them through a waterproof argument!

That would take about 45 minutes. In the next 45, I'd prove -- again, in full rigor -- Cantor's diagonalization theorem of the uncountability of the reals. There is absolutely nothing in the definition of cardinality or in Cantor's proof that is beyond the grasp of a 12-year-old. They were getting it; I can vouch for that. I have no idea why we make students wait until college to see this.

Sunday, February 4, 2007

Concentration of Boolean functions?

In the course of giving an invited talk at Mehryar Mohri's NYU machine learning class this fall, I gave the example of the parity function f:{-1,1}^n -> {-1,1} to illustrate how the concentration phenomenon can break down without a Lipschitz condition. The natural metric here is normalized Hamming and it's immediate that the parity function is not Lipschitz with respect to this metric (or rather its Lipschitz constant is 2n). On the other hand, under the uniform distribution on the discrete cube {-1,1}^n, we have
P(f=-1)=P(f=1)=1/2, while E[f]=0, which means that f is not concentrated about its mean (or any other constant).

Someone in the audience (unfortunately, I don't remember who) asked about the majority function. Totally in improvisation mode, I blurted out that perhaps the majority function is "almost Lipschitz" and one might be able to apply Kutin's generalization of McDiarmid's inequality. [Regarding the latter, I'm surprised this fine paper isn't getting more attention or seeing good applications. Or is it?]

Fast forward to this spring, when I'm sitting in on Ryan O'Donnell's very enjoyable class. We're seeing all sorts of characterizations of properties of Boolean functions in terms of their Fourier coefficients and related concepts. Given my one-track mind, I keep wondering if one can say something about the concentration of Boolean functions with low energy or degree.

Having thought about it for a bit, I see my hopes were naive. Take the simplest nontrivial function -- a dictator (that is, f:{-1,1}^n -> {-1,1} whose values depend only on a fixed single bit). As shown in homework 1, dictators have a rather simple Fourier decomposition. However, for a dictator, we have P(f=-1)=P(f=1)=1/2 and E[f]=0, so we can forget about concentration.

What about majority? The majority function has a more complex Fourier structure (could this be a future homework problem?). Some quick numerical trials indicate that when f:{-1,1}^n -> {-1,1} is the majority function, we have E[f] tending to 0 and P(f=-1), P(f=1) tending to 1/2. I haven't proved this (another possible exercise?), but if it's true then I hope whoever asked me that question reads this post!

A couple of afterthoughts. (1) A recent inequality of Kim and Vu allows one to prove concentration of polynomials with nonnegative coefficients. Since the Fourier expansion is a multivariate polynomial, one might be able to apply Kim-Vu to certain classes of Boolean functions. Is there a characterization of the Boolean functions having nonnegative Fourier coefficients?

(2) I was at first excited to see the Poincaré inequalities, as they are one method for proving concentration. But one must be careful, as Poincaré and log-Sobolev inequalities are really asserting a property of the probability measure, not any specific function. In particular, the Poincaré inequality on the discrete cube is telling us that the product measure on {-1,1}^n has exponential concentration with respect to the Hamming metric. But we already knew a stronger fact (subgaussian tails) via Chernoff bounds!

Update Feb 6: I feel a bit silly running numerics on the majority function and suggesting the observation that E[f] tends to 0 and P(f=-1), P(f=1) tend to 1/2 as an exercise. It's obvious.
Update II: An obvious point that I forgot to make is that it's a bit vacuous to talk about concentration of {-1,1} valued functions; this only makes sense if f_n:{-1,1}^n -> {-1,1} is approaching a constant. The original concentration question was actually about real-valued functions on the cube, but the simple reasoning above show that small Fourier coefficients do not imply concentration.

Thursday, February 1, 2007

Characterizing total variation

Let be a finite set and consider two probability measures (distributions) on , and . One can define many notions of "distance" between and , but a particularly important one (at least in my work) is the variational distance. By definition,

-- that is, we maximize over all subsets of the difference of the measures assigned by the two distributions. It is a well-known fact, routinely left as an exercize for the reader, that

where is just the norm of the difference , viewed as a vector in .

It is also well-known that
,
where the infimum is taken over all the distributions on , having marginals and , respectively, and the random variables are and are distributed and .

Let us define the (unnormalized) measure as the pointwise minimum of and . A somewhat lesser-known fact is that

(I have not seen this mentioned anywhere, but can't imagine that I'm the first one observing this). It easily follows that if and are minorized by some probability measure -- i.e., there is an for which holds pointwise, we have
.

Finally, here is a relation that has a chance of being novel. Consider two finite sets , with probability measures on and on . We will write for the product measure on (and similarly for ). Then
.

To the best of my knowledge, this "tensorization" result was first proved here, but I'd be very grateful if anyone would bring an earlier reference to my attention.

None of these are difficult to prove, but if pressed, how would you do it? I have a simple technique, based on a linear programming principle, that yields all of these pretty much effortlessly (see Lemma 2.6 in the linked paper for the idea). Any other simple proofs out there?

Friday meetings

If we're supposed to meet on Fri, Feb 2, and you don't see your name below, please email me!

  • 1:00 Salahuddin C.
  • 1:30 Vinay C.
  • 2:30 Jeremiah B.
  • 3:00 David W.
  • 3:30 Jonah S.

Reminder: my suggestions for projects can be found here. Try to have a clear idea of what you want to do before the meeting.